The questioner says, she said to her husband “divorce me”, so he said: “I agree (OK)”, or she said to her husband: “I want a divorce”, so he said: “I agree (OK)”.
A man remained absent from his wife for a long period of time, and then divorced her without informing her [or anyone else]. So does the divorce stand?
Is the [pronouncement of] divorce by the one who is intoxicated carried out?
When a man divorces his fourth wife, and wishes to replace her with a[nother] wife, does he have to wait [for the passing of] the duration of the ‘iddah of the divorced [fourth] wife?
Is the pronouncing of one divorce sufficient, since the judge gave her a document accordingly, or should I pronounce a second divorce on her?
What is the Sharee’ah ruling whereby a man wagers a bet with another man that each of them should marry within a specified period of time…
I divorced my wife whilst I was in a state of extreme anger, so I said to her: “You are divorced, divorced”, twice. So does this constitute a divorce or not?
I quarrelled with my wife, and after the quarrel I said to myself without verbally saying so: “Why don’t I just say to her: “You are divorced!”?” [So I made my mind up and thought] I shall say to her: “You are divorced!”
When is divorce permissible?
I married a pious woman when I was young, and after approximately three weeks of marriage I said to my wife: “I do not want you” several times, and “tell your father: I do not want you”.